Can Language Affect How You Spend Your Money?

As an ESL teacher I find this kind of stuff fascinating!

Description (from You Tube): eBay Deals investigates Yale University economist Keith Chen's study on "The Effect of Language on Economic Behavior." Find out how your language can influence your understanding of time, and how this can impact your spending and saving behavior.

For further reading on this subject check out this Wall Street Journal Article:
http://online.wsj.com/article/SB10001424052748703467304575383131592767868.html
siftbotsays...

Promoting this video and sending it back into the queue for one more try; last queued Monday, October 7th, 2013 12:51pm PDT - promote requested by eric3579.

Trancecoachsays...

*animation *science
strange Western bias put forward in the examples used.. plenty of other languages which outstrip the Indo-European languages which constitute the Western world.

siftbotsays...

Tags for this video have been changed from 'educational, languages, abilities, futured, futureless' to 'educational, languages, abilities, futured, futureless, Chen, Sapir, Whorf' - edited by Trancecoach

ChaosEnginesays...

And yet NZ speaks predominantly english and was the first to give women the vote. Granted, the personal pronoun in Te Reo (the Maori language) is gender neutral, but I don't think Maori language or culture was given much respect in 1893.

It's an interesting idea, but I'm skeptical.

My main issue is that the results will be skewed by english. English is a "futured" language and is the main language spoken in the US, UK, Australia, Canada and NZ (among others). All these countries have a common cultural root and tend to save less.

I would like to have seen more analysis broken down by culture and language. Ok, english speakers save less. got that. What about Germans or French (both "futured" languages)?

CreamKsaid:

Really interesting.. We, Finns, also have no he or she and we were amongst the very first to give voting rights to women...

RedSkysays...

Was with him until futured/futureless. It's one thing where the word for something doesn't exist and it alters behavior, but where it's merely a difference of grammatical structure I'm skeptical. Even if phrasing is different, a distinction is still clearly being made.

I don't know how rigorous the relationship is but I would think a great deal of cultural factors are in play beyond religion and simple socio-economics like income. The origins of the language and the cultural factors associated with that might be a good explanation for the grouping.

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