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And I'm saying I can't even fathom why you would think the one necessarily implies the other.

In fairness, I must confess that I didn't really get what you were trying to say here:

Stealing is the absence of an action, which is why it is a valid human right. I'm not stealing anything from you (of my own free will) so what other action do you wish me to perform? Healthcare, or food or water for that matter, is not the absence of an action but rather material goods.

Let me start by saying, stealing is an action someone performs. I think perhaps you meant to say that the right to property depends on the absence of stealing from others?

I guess the implication here is that you reject the idea that rights could ever demand action on the part of others?

If you jump out in front of a moving car, does the driver have an obligation to try to stop?

In reply to this comment by imstellar28:
Your analogy isn't valid, but even if it was it doesn't really answer what I am saying. It's fine if you think people are morally obligated to feed the hungry, or you want the government tax dollars to be spent on such things, but why is there the need to call it a human right? It's misleading and intellectually dishonest.

If I have the right to be fed, then you have the obligation to feed me. If you really believe that why won't you buy me dinner?

In reply to this comment by imstellar28:
Stealing is the absence of an action, which is why it is a valid human right. I'm not stealing anything from you (of my own free will) so what other action do you wish me to perform? Healthcare, or food or water for that matter, is not the absence of an action but rather material goods. If you wish to claim such things are a right (a noble goal) then you would have to ensure that you can provide those things to the 7 billion inhabitants of this planet. I wish someone could do such things but it's clearly not possible -- hence why material goods or services can never be a "human right."